I am shocked and embarrassed that you would make such blanket statements and assumptions about the "causes" of homosexuality, much less without defending a position that has been abandoned in general in psychology for quite a while now.
While I agree that there are aspects in this particular case that raise questions important questions about the possibly compliant nature of Joseph's homosexuality, your statements seem way too general and out of line. To think that on the basis of Joseph's "symptom" of homosexuality alone, you could predict his future interactions with his therapist, his capacity for intimacy, both his parents' personalities, and the general nature of his pathology seems absurd and offensive.
As I mentioned, I do think there is some reason to examine the role of compliance in the possible development of Joseph's homosexuality. In order to understand this individual as accurately as possible, it seems far more reasonable to accept that something as broad and sometimes ambiguous as a person's choice of love or sex objects has more than one "cause."
I look forward to hearing more how this case develops, as well as any other opinions regarding this aspect of Joseph.
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