relating to consensual sex in general, i've always found it amazing that in the case of two intoxicated, heterosexual people, it seems the male is held more responsible for his actions than the woman is for hers. if she is too drunk to give copnsent, isn't it at least possible that he is too drunk to understand that consent has not been given? i wonder how anyone would be able to prove that a contract like this was not signed when one or both parties were drunk.
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