all therapy associations list an ethical guideline to the effect of 'practicing within the specialty' or within experience, or other such language. it seems very vague to me and i'd like more information on how it applies or how that is defined. the only example i can think of is if someone were to call a clinic (or therapist) and ask, "do you treat X disorder?" and the response was "yes" - make an appointment and in some cases, go for a few months regularly, then discover that person had NO experience with that disorder - and in another case, the entire clinic felt that disorder "needed NO specialized treatment" - would that be ethical? in the case i'm referring to (me, if your really wondering) there is a specialized treatment and guideline for this particular disorder - even though individual therapists or clinics aren't aware of it (and given some benifit of doubt there) but would they have the responsibilty to look it up? sort of like a heart doctor treating a foot problem? this does include - i'm confused because to my knowledge, the ONLY guidelines for this disorder exist from one organization and APA referrances to it as well or duplicates it in their reccomendations. how ethical is it to NOT know that or to assume something else? when would these therapist's feel a 'duty to refer' on to specialized treatment, if they aren't trained to treat it at all? thanks
social workers (masters)
clinical psychologists (phd)
marriage and family therapists (masters)
certified counselors (licensed in AZ)
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